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Wednesday, July 8, 2015

Summer Final

Malonek Summer 2015 Semester 2 Biology
 
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Malonek Summer 2015 Semester 2 Biology

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 
 1. 
As a cell becomes larger, its
a.
volume increases faster than its surface area.
b.
surface area increases faster than its volume.
c.
volume increases, but its surface area stays the same.
d.
surface area stays the same, but its volume increases.
 
 2. 
All of the following are problems that growth causes for cells EXCEPT
a.
DNA overload.
c.
obtaining enough food.
b.
excess oxygen.
d.
expelling wastes.
 
 3. 
When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?
a.
only during interphase
c.
only during the M phase
b.
only when they are being replicated
d.
only during the G1 phase
 
 4. 
Which pair is correct?
a.
G1 phase, DNA replication
c.
S phase, cell division
b.
G2 phase, preparation for mitosis
d.
M phase, cell growth
 
 5. 
When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA replicated?
a.
G1 phase
c.
S phase
b.
G2 phase
d.
M phase
 
 6. 
Which event occurs during interphase?
a.
The cell grows.
b.
Centrioles appear.
c.
Spindle fibers begin to form.
d.
Centromeres divide.
 
 7. 
During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell?
a.
prophase
c.
metaphase
b.
telophase
d.
anaphase
 
 8. 
Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?
a.
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
b.
interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
c.
interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
d.
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
 
 9. 
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a.
It helps separate the chromosomes.
c.
It duplicates the DNA.
b.
It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
d.
It divides the cell in half.
 
 10. 
The two main stages of cell division are called
a.
mitosis and interphase.
c.
the M phase and the S phase.
b.
synthesis and cytokinesis.
d.
mitosis and cytokinesis.
 
 11. 
Which of the following explains why normal cells grown in a petri dish tend to stop growing once they have covered the bottom of the dish?
a.
The cells lack cyclin.
b.
The petri dish inhibits cell growth.
c.
Contact with other cells stops cell growth.
d.
Most cells grown in petri dishes have a defective p53.
 
 12. 
Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their
a.
size.
c.
growth rate.
b.
spindle fibers.
d.
surface area.
 
 13. 
Offspring that result from crosses between true-breeding parents with different traits
a.
are true-breeding.
c.
make up the parental generation.
b.
make up the F2 generation.
d.
are called hybrids.
 
 14. 
Mendel concluded that traits are
a.
not inherited by offspring.
b.
inherited through the passing of factors from parents to offspring.
c.
determined by dominant factors only.
d.
determined by recessive factors only.
 
 15. 
In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. Short plants reappeared in the F2 generation because
a.
some of the F2 plants produced gametes that carried the allele for shortness.
b.
the allele for shortness is dominant.
c.
the allele for shortness and the allele for tallness segregated when the F1 plants produced gametes.
d.
they inherited an allele for shortness from one parent and an allele for tallness from the other parent.
 
 16. 
A Punnett square shows all of the following EXCEPT
a.
all possible results of a genetic cross.
b.
the genotypes of the offspring.
c.
the alleles in the gametes of each parent.
d.
the actual results of a genetic cross.
 
 17. 
How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose genotype was RrYY?
a.
2
c.
8
b.
4
d.
16
 
 18. 
A cross of a white hen with a black rooster produces erminette-color offspring. This type of inheritance is known as
a.
incomplete dominance.
c.
codominance.
b.
polygenic inheritance.
d.
multiple alleles.
 
 19. 
Which of the following statements about Thomas Hunt Morgan is true?
a.
Morgan chose to use fruit flies in his study of genetics because fruit flies produce a large number of offspring.
b.
Morgan chose to use fruit flies in his study of genetics because fruit flies take a long time to produce offspring.
c.
Morgan continued Mendel’s genetic study of pea plants.
d.
Morgan discovered that Mendel’s principles of genetics do not apply to fruit flies.
 
 20. 
If an organism’s diploid number is 12, its haploid number is
a.
12.
c.
24.
b.
6.
d.
3.
 
 21. 
What is shown in Figure 11-1?

"mc021-1.jpg"

Figure 11–1
a.
independent assortment
c.
crossing-over
b.
anaphase I of meiosis
d.
incomplete dominance
 
 22. 
Chromosomes form tetrads during
a.
prophase of meiosis I.
c.
prophase of meiosis II.
b.
metaphase of meiosis I.
d.
metaphase of meiosis II.
 
 23. 
Linked genes
a.
are never separated.
b.
assort independently.
c.
are on the same chromosome.
d.
are always recessive.
 
 24. 
If two genes are on the same chromosome and rarely assort independently,
a.
crossing-over never occurs between the genes.
b.
crossing-over always occurs between the genes.
c.
the genes are probably located far apart from each other.
d.
the genes are probably located close to each other.
 
 25. 
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a.
each with two new strands.
b.
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c.
each with one new strand and one original strand.
d.
each with two original strands.
 
 26. 
During mitosis, the
a.
DNA molecules unwind.
b.
histones and DNA molecules separate.
c.
DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d.
nucleosomes become less tightly packed.
 
 27. 
Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a.
adenine.
c.
phosphate groups.
b.
uracil.
d.
thymine.
 
 28. 
Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
a.
transfer RNA only
b.
messenger RNA only
c.
ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d.
messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
 
 29. 
During transcription, an RNA molecule is formed
a.
that is complementary to both strands of DNA.
b.
that is complementary to neither strand of DNA.
c.
that is double-stranded.
d.
inside the nucleus.
 
 30. 
Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?
a.
intron
c.
polypeptide
b.
tRNA
d.
anticodon
 
 31. 
Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?
a.
rRNA
c.
mRNA
b.
tRNA
d.
RNA polymerase
 
 32. 
Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation?
a.
inversion
c.
deletion
b.
insertion
d.
substitution
 
 33. 
Which of the following statements is true?
a.
A promoter determines whether a gene is expressed.
b.
An expressed gene is turned off.
c.
Proteins that bind to regulatory sites on DNA determine whether a gene is expressed.
d.
RNA polymerase regulates gene expression.
 
 34. 
A lac repressor turns off the lac genes by binding to
a.
the promoter.
c.
the operator.
b.
tRNA.
d.
the lac genes.
 
 35. 
Gene regulation in eukaryotes
a.
usually involves operons.
b.
is simpler than in prokaryotes.
c.
allows for cell specialization.
d.
includes the action of DNA polymerase.
 
 36. 
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
b.
Hox genes that are found in different animals are very different from each other.
c.
Hox genes control the normal development of an animal.
d.
Hox genes occur in clusters.
 
 37. 
Selective breeding produces
a.
more offspring.
c.
desired traits in offspring.
b.
fewer offspring.
d.
transgenic organisms.
 
 38. 
The crossing of buffalo and cattle to produce beefalo is an example of
a.
inbreeding.
c.
genetic engineering.
b.
hybridization.
d.
transformation.
 
 39. 
What is the ultimate source of genetic variability?
a.
inbreeding
c.
hybridization
b.
plasmids
d.
mutations
 
 40. 
Breeders maintain the desired traits of an organism by
a.
inbreeding.
c.
hybridization.
b.
using restriction enzymes.
d.
inducing mutations.
 
 41. 
Polyploidy instantly produces a new plant species because it
a.
changes a species’ number of chromosomes.
b.
results from hybridization.
c.
causes transgenic plants.
d.
results from transformation.
 
 42. 
What does Figure 13-1 show?

"mc042-1.jpg"

Figure 13–1
a.
gel electrophoresis
b.
DNA sequencing
c.
a restriction enzyme cutting different sequences of DNA
d.
polymerase chain reaction
 
 43. 
Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis allows researchers to
a.
identify similarities and differences in the genomes of different kinds of organisms.
b.
determine whether a particular allele of a gene is dominant or recessive.
c.
compare the phenotypes of different organisms.
d.
cut DNA with restriction enzymes.
 
 44. 
Which of the following is often used as a genetic marker in plasmids?
a.
a restriction enzyme
b.
a gene for antibiotic resistance
c.
a DNA sequence that promotes replication
d.
a nucleotide labeled with a fluorescent dye
 
 45. 
What has been an advantage of producing transgenic plants?
a.
improving many people’s diets
b.
using more pesticides
c.
producing clones
d.
studying human genes
 
 46. 
What kind of cell or cells were used to make Dolly?
a.
body cell only
c.
egg cell and sperm cell
b.
egg cell only
d.
body cell and egg cell
 
 47. 
What is the approximate probability that a human offspring will be female?
a.
10 percent
c.
50 percent
b.
25 percent
d.
75 percent
 
 48. 
What is the probability that a human sperm cell will carry an X chromosome?
a.
0 percent
c.
50 percent
b.
25 percent
d.
100 percent
 
 49. 
A person who has PKU
a.
inherited the allele for the trait from one parent.
b.
inherited the allele for the trait from both parents.
c.
is heterozygous for the trait.
d.
will not pass the allele for the trait to his or her offspring.
 
 50. 
Which of the following genotypes result in the same phenotype?
a.
IAIA and IAIB
c.
IBIB and IAIB
b.
IBIB and IBi
d.
IBi and ii
 
 51. 
A change in a single gene causes the protein called CFTR to
a.
become less soluble.
b.
fold improperly.
c.
destroy the cell membrane.
d.
transport sodium ions instead of chloride ions.
 
 52. 
Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because
a.
fathers pass the allele for colorblindness to their sons only.
b.
the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome.
c.
the allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome.
d.
males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness.
 
 53. 
A Barr body is
a.
a condensed X chromosome that is inactive.
b.
a condensed Y chromosome that is inactive.
c.
an activated X chromosome.
d.
an activated Y chromosome.
 
 54. 
The process of DNA fingerprinting is based on the fact that
a.
the most important genes are different among most people.
b.
no two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA.
c.
most genes are dominant.
d.
most people have DNA that contains repeats.
 
 55. 
The human genome was sequenced
a.
by sequencing each gene on each chromosome, one at a time.
b.
using DNA fingerprinting.
c.
by looking for overlapping regions between sequenced DNA fragments.
d.
using open reading frames.
 
 56. 
Which of the following is the first step in gene therapy?
a.
splicing the normal gene to viral DNA
b.
allowing recombinant viruses to infect human cells
c.
using restriction enzymes to cut out the normal gene from DNA
d.
identifying the faulty gene that causes the disease
 
 57. 
The species of tortoises that Darwin found on the Galápagos Islands displayed different structural adaptations. One of the adaptations that Darwin noted was the
a.
similarity in the tortoises’ embryos.
b.
difference in shell markings of the tortoises.
c.
variation in length of the tortoises’ necks.
d.
difference in number of eggs in each tortoise’s nest.
 
 58. 
Lamarck proposed that organisms
a.
have an innate tendency toward complexity and perfection.
b.
have an innate tendency to become more simple as time passes.
c.
inherit all of the adaptations they display.
d.
belong to species that never change.
 
 59. 
Lamarck’s theory of evolution includes the concept that new organs in a species appear as a result of
a.
continual increases in population size.
b.
the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.
c.
an unchanging local environment.
d.
the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.
 
 60. 
The idea that only famine, disease, and war could prevent the endless growth of human populations was presented by
a.
Darwin.
c.
Malthus.
b.
Lamarck.
d.
Lyell.
 
 61. 
When Darwin returned from the voyage of the Beagle, he
a.
immediately published his ideas about evolution.
b.
realized his ideas about evolution were wrong.
c.
wrote about his ideas but waited many years to publish them.
d.
copied the evolutionary theory of Wallace.
 
 62. 
When lions prey on a herd of antelope, some antelope are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural selection might be used to describe this situation?
a.
acquired characteristics
c.
survival of the fittest
b.
reproductive isolation
d.
descent with modification
 
 63. 
According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have
a.
characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse.
b.
characteristics that plant and animal breeders value.
c.
the greatest number of offspring.
d.
variations best suited to the environment.
 
 64. 
Darwin’s concept of evolution was NOT influenced by
a.
the work of Lyell.
b.
knowledge of the structure of DNA.
c.
his collection of specimens.
d.
his trip on the H.M.S. Beagle.
 
 65. 
The number and location of bones of many fossil vertebrates are similar to those in living vertebrates. Most biologists would probably explain this fact on the basis of
a.
the needs of the organisms.
c.
the struggle for existence.
b.
a common ancestor.
d.
the inheritance of acquired traits.
 
 66. 
Darwin viewed the fossil record as
a.
evidence that Earth was thousands of years old.
b.
a record of evolution.
c.
interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species.
d.
evidence that traits are acquired through use or disuse.
 
 67. 
Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on the idea(s) of
a.
natural variation and natural selection.
b.
use and disuse.
c.
a tendency toward perfect, unchanging species.
d.
the transmission of acquired characteristics.
 
 68. 
Which of the following statements describes what all members of a population share?
a.
They are temporally isolated from one another.
b.
They are geographically isolated from one another.
c.
They are members of the same species.
d.
They have identical genes.
 
 69. 
If an allele makes up one fourth of a population’s alleles for a given trait, its relative frequency is
a.
100 percent.
c.
25 percent.
b.
75 percent.
d.
4 percent.
 
 70. 
In many kinds of organisms, most heritable differences are due to
a.
mutations during gamete formation.
b.
chemicals in the environment.
c.
gene shuffling during gamete formation.
d.
the effects of radiation.
 
 71. 
Gene shuffling includes the independent movement of chromosomes during meiosis as well as
a.
mutations from radiation.
b.
changes in the frequencies of alleles.
c.
crossing-over.
d.
mutations from chemicals.
 
 72. 
A single-gene trait that has two alleles and that shows a simple dominant-recessive pattern will result in
a.
one phenotype.
c.
four phenotypes.
b.
two phenotypes.
d.
millions of phenotypes.
 
 73. 
When individuals at only one end of a bell-shaped curve of phenotype frequencies have high fitness, the result is
a.
directional selection.
c.
disruptive selection.
b.
stabilizing selection.
d.
genetic drift.
 
 74. 
When individuals with an average form of a trait have the highest fitness, the result is
a.
not predictable.
c.
directional selection.
b.
disruptive selection.
d.
stabilizing selection.
 
 75. 
The genetic equilibrium of a population can be disturbed by each of the following EXCEPT
a.
nonrandom mating.
b.
movement into and out of the population.
c.
a large population size.
d.
mutations.
 
 76. 
The allele frequencies of a population are more likely to remain unchanged if
a.
the population size is reduced.
b.
frequent movement into and out of the population occurs.
c.
all mating is random.
d.
the mutation rate increases.
 
 77. 
What situation might develop in a population having some plants whose flowers open at midday and other plants whose flowers open late in the day?
a.
behavioral isolation
c.
temporal isolation
b.
geographic isolation
d.
genetic drift
 
 78. 
What did Peter and Rosemary Grant learn about mate choice in the Galápagos finches?
a.
Phenotype plays no role in mate choice.
b.
Genotype plays no role in mate choice.
c.
Finches prefer mates with smaller beaks than their own.
d.
Finches prefer mates with beaks similar in size to their own.
 
 79. 
To be useful as an index fossil, a species must have existed for a
a.
long period over a wide geographic range.
b.
long period over a small geographic range.
c.
short period over a wide geographic range.
d.
short period over a small geographic range.
 
 80. 
The basic divisions of the geologic time scale from larger to smaller are
a.
eras and periods.
b.
periods and eras.
c.
relative and absolute dates.
d.
billions of years and millions of years.
 
 81. 
The Mesozoic Era occurred
a.
before Precambrian Time.
c.
after the Paleozoic Era.
b.
during Precambrian Time.
d.
after the Cenozoic Era.
 
 82. 
Two gases that probably existed in Earth’s early atmosphere are
a.
oxygen and hydrogen sulfide.
b.
water vapor and oxygen.
c.
oxygen and carbon monoxide.
d.
hydrogen cyanide and carbon monoxide.
 
 83. 
What prevents organic molecules from forming on their own and remaining intact today?
a.
Earth is too hot.
b.
Atmospheric oxygen is too reactive.
c.
The necessary building blocks no longer exist.
d.
There is no energy source available.
 
 84. 
One necessary condition for the evolution of the first life on Earth was
a.
the presence of DNA.
b.
abundant oxygen in the atmosphere.
c.
the presence of photosynthetic organisms.
d.
the presence of liquid water.
 
 85. 
Which of the following functions can RNA perform under certain conditions?
a.
catalyzing chemical reactions
b.
processing messenger RNA after transcription
c.
helping DNA replicate
d.
all of the above
 
 86. 
What was the response of the various groups of early organisms that existed when oxygen levels rose in the atmosphere?
a.
Some life forms became extinct.
b.
Some life forms survived in only a few airless habitats.
c.
Some life forms evolved metabolic pathways that used oxygen for respiration.
d.
all of the above
 
 87. 
The process by which two species, for example, a flower and a pollinating insect, evolve in response to each other is called
a.
convergent evolution.
c.
coevolution.
b.
adaptive radiation.
d.
punctuated equilibrium.
 
 88. 
In the past, mass extinctions encouraged the rapid evolution of surviving species
a.
by changing developmental genes.
b.
by making new habitats available to them.
c.
because they killed all organisms that had coevolved.
d.
because they spared all organisms that had evolved convergently.
 
 89. 
Which of the following is NOT true about flatworms?
a.
They have a fluid-filled body cavity called a coelom.
b.
They are the simplest animals to have three embryonic germ layers.
c.
They are acoelomates.
d.
They are bilaterally symmetrical.
 
 90. 
In free-living flatworms, what organ pumps food into the digestive cavity?
a.
coelom
c.
pharynx
b.
ganglia
d.
flame cells
 
 91. 
Many flatworms can detect changes in the amount of light in their environment using groups of cells called
a.
flame cells.
c.
ganglia.
b.
nerve cords.
d.
eyespots.
 
 92. 
In the tapeworm, both male and female reproductive organs are contained in each mature
a.
scolex.
c.
cyst.
b.
proglottid.
d.
egg.
 
 93. 
What causes the disease called elephantiasis?
a.
flukes
c.
hookworms
b.
filarial worms
d.
ascarid worms
 
 94. 
In annelids, nitrogen-containing wastes are eliminated by
a.
clitella.
c.
nephridia.
b.
parapodia.
d.
gills.
 
 95. 
The muscular extension of a leech that penetrates the tissue of its host is the
a.
septum.
c.
proboscis.
b.
radula.
d.
ganglion.
 
 96. 
The larvae of many marine annelids are ecologically important because they
a.
poison coral reefs.
b.
are eaten by fishes and other marine animals.
c.
feed on earthworms.
d.
none of the above
 
 97. 
Which of the following is NOT true about mollusks?
a.
They usually have an external or internal shell.
b.
They are all filter feeders.
c.
They are soft-bodied animals.
d.
They have tube-shaped nephridia to remove ammonia from blood.
 
 98. 
The most active mollusks are the
a.
gastropods.
c.
bivalves.
b.
cephalopods.
d.
nudibranchs.
 
 99. 
The structures labeled X in Figure 28-1 are filled with

"mc099-1.jpg"

Figure 28-1
a.
water.
c.
air.
b.
blood.
d.
nitrogenous wastes.
 
 100. 
An arthropod is vulnerable to predators during the molting period because
a.
it must come out of hiding to molt.
b.
its new exoskeleton is soft.
c.
molting cannot occur without the assistance of predators.
d.
predators are more numerous during this period.
 
 101. 
The function of mandibles is to
a.
bite and grind food.
c.
propel an arthropod when it swims.
b.
sense the environment.
d.
support an arthropod when it walks.
 
 102. 
An example of a chelicerate is a
a.
lobster.
c.
crayfish.
b.
centipede.
d.
spider.
 
 103. 
Spiders feed by
a.
swallowing their prey whole.
b.
biting off and swallowing pieces of their prey.
c.
sucking up prey tissues that have been liquefied by enzymes.
d.
sipping nectar through a tubelike mouthpart.
 
 104. 
An insect can detect minute movements in its environment by using its compound eyes and its
a.
Malpighian tubules.
c.
chelicerae.
b.
tracheal tubes.
d.
sensory hairs.
 
 105. 
Which of the following explains why flying has been beneficial to insects?
a.
Nymphs can escape most predators.
b.
Insects can disperse long distances and colonize a variety of habitats.
c.
Insect societies can communicate without using pheromones.
d.
The insect body plan can function with only two sections.
 
 106. 
An example of an insect that undergoes incomplete metamorphosis is the
a.
moth.
c.
beetle.
b.
bee.
d.
chinch bug.
 
 107. 
In most species of echinoderms, respiration occurs mainly in the
a.
tube feet.
c.
ring canal.
b.
madreporite.
d.
radial canals.
 
 108. 
In the Great Barrier Reef of Australia, extensive areas of coral have been destroyed by the crown of thorns, which is a type of
a.
sea cucumber.
c.
sea star.
b.
sea urchin.
d.
sea lily.
 
 109. 
Which of these chordate characteristics exists as paired structures?
a.
tail
c.
pharyngeal pouch
b.
notochord
d.
nerve cord
 
 110. 
Which of the following statements about a vertebrate’s skeleton is INCORRECT?
a.
It supports and protects the body.
b.
It is an endoskeleton.
c.
It grows as the animal grows.
d.
It is made entirely of nonliving material.
 
 111. 
Lancelets belong to the phylum
a.
Urochordata.
c.
Vertebrata.
b.
Cephalochordata.
d.
Chordata.
 
 112. 
In most fishes, the structures that are most important for obtaining oxygen from water are the
a.
scales.
c.
lungs.
b.
gills.
d.
vertebrae.
 
 113. 
Fishes that lived during the late Cambrian Period
a.
lacked paired fins.
b.
had powerful jaws.
c.
had limbs.
d.
had soft bodies with little or no armor.
 
 114. 
Most fishes get rid of nitrogenous wastes by
a.
taking in ammonia through the gills and eliminating it from the kidneys.
b.
taking in water through the kidneys and eliminating ammonia from the gills.
c.
eliminating ammonia from the gills and from the kidneys.
d.
eliminating urine from the gills and ammonia from the kidneys.
 
 115. 
All fishes in the class Chondrichthyes are alike in the
a.
foods that they eat.
c.
shape of their bodies.
b.
size and form of their teeth.
d.
composition of their skeletons.
 
 116. 
Which feature distinguishes most fishes from most amphibians?
a.
a vertebral column
b.
scales
c.
breathing with gills during at least part of the life cycle
d.
living in water during at least part of the life cycle
 
 117. 
Which of the following is NOT an amphibian adaptation that provides support against the pull of gravity?
a.
strong bones in the limbs
b.
strong bones in the pelvic girdle
c.
a bony cage around the internal organs
d.
lungs for breathing air
 
 118. 
Which of the following structures are missing from many salamanders that live on land?
a.
lungs
c.
legs
b.
kidneys
d.
eyes
 
 119. 
A frog’s tympanic membranes would be most useful for
a.
enabling the frog to jump long distances.
b.
filtering wastes from the frog’s blood.
c.
listening to the mating calls of other frogs.
d.
keeping the frog’s eyes from drying out on land.
 
 
"nar001-1.jpg"

Figure 30–1
 
 120. 
Amphibians like the one in Figure 30-1 are
a.
herbivores as larvae and carnivores as adults.
b.
carnivores as larvae and herbivores as adults.
c.
herbivores as larvae and adults.
d.
carnivores as larvae and adults.
 



 
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